Sunday, July 7, 2024

'Science' and the post-Columbine depopulation of the Americas by ‘germs’ from Europeans: a rebuttal.

Does the ‘smallpox virus’ exist and is this a reasonable explanation for the depopulation of Ameri-Indians? Or is the combination of war, plague, bacteria and contamination more likely?

by StFerdIII

 

 

The word “virus” is derived from the Latin word for poison. Viruses are associated with all forms of life (bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes). Viruses are infectious, obligate intracellular parasites whose genomes consist of either DNA or RNA. Virus genomes direct their own replication and the synthesis of other viral components, using cellular systems in appropriate host cells. Virus particles (known as virions) are formed by assembly from newly synthesized components within the host cell. Virions are the vehicle for transmission of the genome to the next host cell or organism.” 

(Pellett et al, ‘Basics of Virology’2014, offering the standard description of a ‘virus’)

Note: Viruses are 250-400 nanometers in size. A nanometer is one billionth of a meter…a small fraction of a bacteria.  Not a single isolated and purified virus can be shown.  To satisfy your own curiosity you can send FOI requests to various health and governmental agencies and demand to see an example of a purified, isolated virus.  They will reply that they don’t have such examples to show you

 

Introduction

 

 

 

 

One of the claims to support the worldview that ‘contagious diseases’ are spread by ‘germs’, is the ‘genocide’ of Ameri-Indians post-Columbus.  It has long been established that the evisceration of Ameri-Indian culture, society and people was perpetrated through a mixture of war, slavery, and disease.  Depending on your source, the weighting of war, slavery and disease in this catastrophe varies.  ‘Virus hunters’ routinely invoke the post-Columbine era of Ameri-Indian civilisational destruction as ‘proof’ of ‘contagious’ diseases, passed on by White humans and their livestock, to Ameri-Indian natives.  This theory is most certainly wrong and is entirely unproven and unsupported by facts or common sense.

 

 

Context

 

 

 

 

Since the 1990s, it has become standard fare to vastly inflate the numbers of pre-Columbine (before 1492) Ameri-Indians in North and South America.  The more rancid and extreme population estimates now range between 80-100 million Ameri-Indians in the Western hemisphere pre-1492 A.D. with a general scholarly agreement that 60 million might be a correct estimate.  This number is however a conjecture and given the paucity of proofs, more likely a fiction, generated to impress and overawe the reader with the colossal scale of human genocidal destruction, initiated by Christian Europeans upon pagan Ameri-Indians. In this story some 50 million or more Ameri-Indians perished mostly through ‘germs’ over 3 centuries, or the same number who died in Europe from the Black Death in the 14th century, a plague caused by bacteria.

 

Reality

 

 

 

 

In the 18th and 19th centuries the estimate of the pre-Columbine population in the Western Hemisphere was 8-12 million.  This is a more reasonable figure and less tainted by political motives and secular theology than post-modern estimates which provide no proof of numbers ranging from 60-100 million.  Ameri-Indian society was a stone-age culture, with settled agriculture existing only in parts of Central America and the Andes ranges.  There was no possibility that Central and South America, with a somewhat limited and primitive agricultural base, or North America, with a hunter-gatherer-foraging culture absent of urban centres, could have supported 60-100 million people.  Claiming such population figures is unreasonable and unproven. 

 

By contrast Europe in 1500 was a far wealthier, more advanced, civilised and agriculturally innovative culture and possessed maybe 60 million people.  The 14th century episode of the Black Death or bubonic plague had erased about half the population.  Even despite this catastrophe, it is unreasonable to posit that in 1492, the primal societies of the Western Hemisphere had a similar or even a greater population than a Europe which was littered with small-scale cities and complex agriculture and trade.  The less advanced, pre-modern societies of the Americas could never have supported such a mass of people. 

 

Common sense

 

 

 

 

The best estimates are that maybe 1 million natives existed north of the Rio Grande pre-1492, some 3-5 million in Mexico and Central America and a further 4-5 million in South America.  No cities or advanced agriculture existed north of the Rio Grande.  The Aztec and Incan empires were slave-empires, with conurbations comprising the capitals of Tenochtitlan and Cuzco.  Advanced agriculture outside of the capital territories were sparse and would never have supported some 50-90 million people.  Contrary to historical rewriting there is no proof that massive farming or agriculture was endemic in the Western Hemisphere in the pre-Columbine period.

 

The Spanish conquered the Aztec and Inca empires with fewer than 1000 men.  The annihilation of the Aztecs for example, was accomplished by the Spanish leading a ‘native’ army who had tired of Aztec tyranny, slavery, human sacrifice and exploitation.  A few hundred men with guns cannot unseat an empire of some 5 million, or for the revisionist Marxist, the false claim of 30-40 million people.  The same was true of the Spanish destruction of the Inca’s, a much-hated elite-aristocratic group, famous for brutality and savagery.  It is simply not credible that a handful of Spaniards overthrew a region teeming with neo-Marxist figures of 30 millon or more people. The population of the Americas must have been in the 8-12 million range. ‘Native’ revolts as much as Spanish steel and guns overthrew the two principal empires of the Americas.

 

‘Germs’ and guns

 

 

 

 

Guns and steel were important, but they can’t explain a population reduction of some 75-90% or 6-10 million, over a few centuries. The ‘consensus’ is that disease destroyed these societies far more completely than war and anarchy.  For the ‘virus’ hunters the Ameri-Indians were decimated by ‘contagious’ diseases and are thus a totem and proof for the virus faithful.  In this belief system, the Whites brought ‘new’ and novel ‘pathogens’ which the Ameri-Indians had no defence against, and they perished en-masse allowing the Spanish to seize power as the population was reduced and enfeebled through contagion. 

 

 

As colonisation progressed, the carnage by disease accelerated until by 1900 only 10-25% of the baseline pre-1492 Ameri-Indian population remained.  It is thus believed and promoted that ‘germs’ effaced 75-90% of the native populations.  In particular the smallpox ‘virus’, along with flu and measles explain why the Ameri-Indians were largely exterminated

 

False narratives

 

 

 

 

Do any parts of these ‘agreed narratives’ make any sense?  Did the advent of Whites, with their horses, cows, pigs and ‘infectious’ diseases really initiate ‘smallpox’ and other ‘great killers’, or were other factors at work?  Have we got the entire history of ‘disease’ wrong?  Do smallpox ‘viruses’ even exist for example?  If not, what happened in the post-Columbine Americas?

 

 

Smallpox

 

 

 

 

 

According to ‘The Science’, the origination of the smallpox ‘virus’ is from bovines or cows, though the quack Jenner believed that ‘horse grease’ from the hoofs of horses, passed to cows from farm workers, was to blame.  We are told that ‘influenza’ (Corona viruses) jumped from pigs to humans.  Birds and fowl are also alleged to spread ‘influenza’, named ‘bird flu’.  It is agreed that horses generated the ‘tuberculosis virus’.  Livestock thus creates contagious diseases.  When these were introduced into the Americas, so the theory states, contagions were unleashed on the native populations. 

 

The theory around smallpox is:

·       Bovines including dairy cows, supposedly suffer from Cowpox

·       The ‘cowpox’ in the cow is a part of the genus orthopoxvirus

·       The cowpox virus is zoonotic, meaning that it is transferable between species

·       This ‘virus’ is supposedly related to the vaccinia virus causing ‘smallpox’ in humans

·       In humans the smallpox ‘virus’ is called the variola virus

·       Humans contract ‘variola virus’ from exposure cows in any form (milking, farming, slaughtering)

 

Smallpox has always been seized upon as a great killer of the Ameri-Indians.  Smallpox as a virulent disease was supposedly passed on from bovines to humans through the activity of farming, including milking. Close contact is believed to be sufficient for the ‘orthopox virus’ to ‘jump’ species. Ingesting meat, dairy, skin, urine, faeces, or any animal detritus can lead to ‘smallpox’ in humans. Signatures of the disease include pustules or poxes on the hands and face. 

 

For many with immature or compromised immune systems including young children, death can follow.  The infection-to-death rate in the 19th century in the slums of the UK from ‘smallpox’ was low at around 0.4-1%.  As many doctors commented in the 18th and 19th centuries, smallpox was not a particularly deadly disease if proper non-chemical treatment was given.  Why then would the Ameri-Indians die in such numbers? The answer is always ‘lack of immunity’ due to not spending thousands of years with cows. Is this theory validated?

 

 

More here